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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 22.06.2025 12:51

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

There's no rule.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

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What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What does it mean if I had a dream about my mom who passed 12 years ago waking up from her coma and asking for my dad? I have never had a dreams about her since she has been gone.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.